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65+ Free CISSP Practice Test Questions to Conquer the Exam

The CISSP practice test is the single most effective weapon in your arsenal when preparing for the grueling Certified Information Systems Security Professional (CISSP) exam. Often regarded as the gold standard in information security, this certification requires more than just memorizing definitions; it demands a managerial mindset that can apply complex security principles to real-world business scenarios.

Many candidates make the fatal mistake of relying on low-quality CISSP exam dumps, which offer little context and often contain outdated information. To truly succeed, you need a high-quality CISSP exam practice test that challenges your critical thinking and aligns with the current ISC2 Common Body of Knowledge (CBK). Our guide below breaks down five essential concepts derived directly from our free CISSP practice test to help you understand the level of depth required to pass. https://www.isc2.org/certifications/cissp

Note: You can access the full, interactive CISSP practice test at the bottom of this post.

65+ Free CISSP Practice Test Questions to Conquer the Exam

Domain 1: Mastering Risk Management Strategies

Risk management is the cornerstone of the Certified System Security Professional curriculum. On the CISSP practice test, you will frequently encounter scenarios where you must act as a security manager deciding how to handle a specific threat.

One critical concept to master is Risk Mitigation. This strategy involves taking active steps to reduce the likelihood or impact of a risk. For example, if an organization conducts a risk assessment and decides to implement a Web Application Firewall (WAF) to protect against SQL injection attacks, they are engaging in Risk Mitigation. Unlike Risk Acceptance (doing nothing) or Risk Transference (buying insurance), mitigation involves implementing specific controls to lower the risk to an acceptable level.

Domain 1: Governance and Segregation of Duties

Security governance is heavily featured on every CISSP exam practice test. A frequent topic is the prevention of fraud and error through internal controls. https://www.isc2.org/certifications/cissp/cissp-certification-exam-outline

The principle of Segregation of Duties (SoD) is vital here. This principle ensures that no single individual has the authority to execute two conflicting sensitive functions. A classic violation of this principle—often cited in CISSP practice test questions—occurs when a single employee has the permission to both create a new vendor in the accounting system and authorize payments to that vendor. This creates a “single point of compromise” where fraud can occur undetected. A prepared candidate must be able to identify this violation immediately.

Domain 5: Identity and Access Management (IAM)

Identity is the new perimeter, and understanding authentication factors is non-negotiable for the CISSP practice test. https://www.isc2.org/certifications/cissp/cissp-certification-exam-outline

The Evolution of Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA)

Simple passwords are no longer sufficient. Modern security relies on Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA). MFA requires the use of at least two different categories of authentication factors:

  1. Something you know (Password, PIN)
  2. Something you have (Hardware token, Smartphone)
  3. Something you are (Fingerprint, Retina scan)

If a system requires a user to enter a password and then enter a code from a hardware token, this is the definition of MFA. Our free CISSP practice test will test your ability to distinguish true MFA from multi-step authentication (using two factors of the same type, like two passwords).

Domain 3: Cloud Security Models

As organizations migrate to the cloud, the CISSP exam has updated its objectives to include detailed cloud security concepts. You must understand the shared responsibility model to ace the CISSP practice test. https://www.isc2.org/certifications/cissp/cissp-certification-exam-outline

A common scenario involves distinguishing between service models. If an organization uses a cloud service where the provider manages the operating system, middleware, and runtime, while the organization is only responsible for deploying its applications and data, this is Platform as a Service (PaaS). Unlike Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS), where you manage the OS, PaaS abstracts those layers away. Recognizing these distinctions is a key skill tested on the CISSP exam practice test.

Domain 7: Security Operations and the CIA Triad

The CIA Triad (Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability) is the model that guides all security policies. While confidentiality often gets the spotlight, the CISSP practice test ensures you do not neglect Availability. https://www.isc2.org/certifications/cissp/cissp-certification-exam-outline

Attacks are often classified by which part of the triad they compromise. A Distributed Denial-of-Service (DDoS) attack is specifically designed to overwhelm system resources, making them inaccessible to legitimate users. Therefore, a DDoS attack primarily targets Availability. Understanding this classification is essential for answering categorization questions on the exam.

Why You Should Avoid CISSP Exam Dumps

It can be tempting to search for CISSP exam dumps to take a shortcut. However, using dumps is a violation of the ISC2 Code of Ethics and can lead to decertification. Furthermore, dumps rarely provide the “why” behind the answer. A legitimate CISSP practice test provides detailed explanations (like those found in our free resources below), ensuring you understand the logic needed to answer vague or tricky questions on the actual exam.

Conclusion

Passing the CISSP requires dedication, a managerial perspective, and the right resources. By focusing on core concepts like Risk Mitigation, Segregation of Duties, and Cloud Service Models, you build a foundation that can withstand the adaptive nature of the exam. Please do not forget to checkout other free ISC2 Certifications on CertyBuddy.com: https://certybuddy.com/practice-tests/?vendor=isc2

Ready to validate your knowledge? Take the free CISSP practice test, Quiz, and Flashcards below to start your journey toward becoming a Certified System Security Professional.

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65+ Free CISSP Practice Test Questions to Conquer the Exam

This process focuses on what is most important to the business and how bad it would be if it were unavailable.

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A business impact analysis (BIA) is a critical component of business continuity planning. What is its primary goal?

This entity acts as a digital notary, verifying identities in the online world.

2 / 68

What is the primary purpose of a Certificate Authority (CA) in a Public Key Infrastructure (PKI)?

Think of a piece of malware that travels through the network on its own, like a biological worm through soil.

3 / 68

What type of malware propagates automatically across a network from one vulnerable computer to another without user interaction?

Think about what can be proven by successfully verifying a signature created with a private key.

4 / 68

What is the primary purpose of a ‘digital signature’ in information security?

This model was developed for the U.S. Department of Defense and is concerned with information classification levels.

5 / 68

The Bell-LaPadula model is a formal security model designed to protect which aspect of information security?

Consider the shared responsibility model and where the line is drawn for managing the application stack.

6 / 68

An organization is migrating its application development environment to a cloud service where the provider manages the operating system, middleware, and runtime, while the organization is only responsible for deploying and managing its own applications and data. Which cloud service model is this?

The name of this technology focuses on stopping sensitive information from leaving the organization.

7 / 68

What is the primary goal of data loss prevention (DLP) systems?

Think of the difference between ‘planning to do the right thing’ and ‘actually doing the right thing’.

8 / 68

The concept of ‘due care’ in information security refers to what?

This type of training focuses on changing behavior and strengthening the ‘human firewall’.

9 / 68

Which of the following is a primary benefit of ‘security awareness training’ for employees?

This model focuses on well-formed transactions and certified procedures to modify data.

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The Clark-Wilson model is a real-world integrity model that requires transactions to be certified and separates duties. What is its fundamental mechanism for ensuring integrity?

The name of this test type implies that the tester cannot see inside the target system.

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A penetration tester is given no prior information about the target organization’s infrastructure. What type of test is being conducted?

Consider the level of readiness and the time it would take to become operational.

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A disaster recovery plan calls for a facility that has power, HVAC, and network connectivity but no computer hardware. Staff must bring equipment and restore data from backups. What type of alternate site is this?

Think about an alarm that goes off when there is no actual emergency.

13 / 68

An intrusion detection system (IDS) flags legitimate network traffic as malicious. What type of error is this?

The name of this model directly refers to an individual’s position or function.

14 / 68

Which access control model assigns permissions to users based on their job functions within an organization?

This type of control is often referred to as a ‘soft’ control and relates to policies and procedures.

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Which of the following would be considered an administrative security control?

Think about how a VPN protects your data when you are using a public Wi-Fi network.

16 / 68

What is the primary security advantage of using a Virtual Private Network (VPN)?

Consider the typical security posture and patch management capabilities of consumer-grade smart devices.

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Which of the following is the most significant security risk of allowing unmanaged IoT devices (e.g., smart TVs, smart thermostats) onto a corporate network?

Think about which role has accountability and decision-making authority for a specific set of data.

18 / 68

Which security data role is ultimately responsible for an information asset and for assigning a classification to it?

This attack is like recording a conversation and playing it back later to fool someone.

19 / 68

An attacker intercepts a legitimate user’s login session and retransmits the captured data to the server to gain unauthorized access. What type of attack has occurred?

Think of the stages data goes through, similar to a biological life cycle.

20 / 68

The concept that data should be protected throughout its entire existence, from creation to disposal, is known as what?

This technique prevents two identical inputs from producing the same output hash.

21 / 68

What is the purpose of using ‘salting’ when hashing passwords?

The first word in this three-letter acronym gives a clue about the time frame involved.

22 / 68

A quantitative risk analysis results in an Annualized Loss Expectancy (ALE) of $25,000 for a specific threat. What does this value represent?

This model’s rules are the inverse of those in the Bell-LaPadula confidentiality model.

23 / 68

The Biba integrity model is characterized by which two primary rules?

Think about what a DDoS attack is trying to prevent legitimate users from doing.

24 / 68

In the context of the CIA triad, a distributed denial-of-service (DDoS) attack primarily targets which component?

Consider which type of control identifies an incident after it has already started or completed.

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Which of the following is an example of a detective security control?

Think of the site’s ‘temperature’ as a metaphor for its readiness to take over operations.

26 / 68

A company is considering a disaster recovery solution that provides the fastest possible recovery time, with operations failing over to a fully operational, duplicate data center almost instantaneously. What type of recovery site is this?

The name of this concept emphasizes using the built environment itself to influence behavior.

27 / 68

In physical security, what is the primary purpose of Crime Prevention Through Environmental Design (CPTED)?

This concept is often analogized to the layered defenses of a medieval castle.

28 / 68

A security architect is designing a new system and wants to ensure that if one security control fails, other controls are in place to still protect the asset. What is this security principle called?

This form of IP protection is automatically granted to the creator of a work as soon as it is fixed in a tangible medium.

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Which legal concept protects intellectual property such as original works of authorship (e.g., books, music, software code)?

The acronym for this policy literally describes what the employees are doing with their equipment.

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When an organization allows employees to use their personal smartphones and laptops for work purposes, what is this policy commonly called?

Consider which method guarantees data is unrecoverable but requires direct physical access to the media.

31 / 68

Which of the following data sanitization methods is effective for Solid-State Drives (SSDs) but may not be possible in a multi-tenant cloud environment?

This security protocol suite is named after the protocol that operates at the target layer.

32 / 68

In the OSI model, at which layer does IPsec primarily operate to secure network communications?

Look for the protocol that introduced a mandatory replacement for the weaker TKIP encryption.

33 / 68

Which wireless security protocol is considered secure for modern networks and uses the CCMP encryption protocol, which is based on AES?

This RAID level balances performance, storage efficiency, and redundancy by distributing parity information.

34 / 68

What is the primary motivation for implementing RAID 5 on a server?

Consider the ‘avalanche effect’ property of cryptographic hash functions.

35 / 68

A hash function like SHA-256 is applied to a file. If a single bit in the file is changed, what will happen to the resulting hash value?

This category of threat directly relates to the ‘Integrity’ component of the CIA triad.

36 / 68

In threat modeling, what does the ‘T’ in the STRIDE model stand for?

This technology combines security information management (SIM) and security event management (SEM).

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A security analyst uses a tool that centrally collects, aggregates, and analyzes log data from various systems and network devices to identify security incidents. What is this type of tool called?

This system requires a preliminary action before the final suppression action can occur.

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In the context of fire suppression systems for data centers, which type of system is designed to avoid water damage to electronic equipment by releasing water only in two stages: first filling the pipes upon smoke detection, and then releasing from sprinkler heads only when high heat is detected?

Think about making the system a smaller and more difficult target for attackers.

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The process of hardening a server involves what primary activity?

This action is the final step in the data lifecycle.

40 / 68

To comply with the GDPR ‘right to be forgotten,’ an organization needs to securely remove a user’s personal data from a live database. What process is being executed?

Think about the control designed to prevent a single point of compromise in a sensitive process.

41 / 68

Which security principle is most directly violated when a single employee has the permissions to both create a new vendor in the accounting system and authorize payments to that vendor?

The name of this attack uses a metaphor for hunting a very large sea creature.

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What is the term for a type of social engineering attack that specifically targets high-profile individuals like executives or system administrators?

Think of a safe, enclosed area where a child can play without getting into trouble.

43 / 68

What is the primary purpose of a ‘sandbox’ in application security?

This serves as the foundational, approved configuration from which all similar systems are built.

44 / 68

An organization is creating a ‘baseline’ configuration for its Windows servers. What is the purpose of this baseline?

Think about the hierarchy of security documentation, starting from the most general and authoritative.

45 / 68

Which of the following documents is a high-level statement of management’s intent and is mandatory for all personnel within an organization?

Think of the unbroken sequence of possession for a piece of evidence.

46 / 68

During a forensic investigation, it is critical to maintain a complete record of every person who handled the evidence, the date/time it was handled, and the actions performed. What is this record called?

This device is designed to be a highly secure vault for the most sensitive cryptographic secrets.

47 / 68

What is the main advantage of using a hardware security module (HSM) for cryptographic operations?

This attack vector targets the ‘human element’ of security rather than technical vulnerabilities.

48 / 68

An attacker uses psychological manipulation to trick an employee into divulging their password over the phone. What is this type of attack called?

The term relates to the amount of time the software vendor has had to prepare a defense.

49 / 68

Which of the following describes a ‘zero-day’ vulnerability?

Consider whether the action is reducing the chance of a successful attack or shifting financial responsibility.

50 / 68

An organization, after a thorough risk assessment, decides to implement a web application firewall (WAF) to protect against SQL injection attacks. According to the common risk management strategies, which approach is being applied?

This technology is essential for allowing devices with private IP addresses (like 192.168.1.x) to access the internet.

51 / 68

What is the primary function of Network Address Translation (NAT)?

The name of this phase describes three distinct, sequential actions taken after an incident has been identified.

52 / 68

In the NIST incident response lifecycle, what is the primary goal of the ‘Containment, Eradication, & Recovery’ phase?

Consider how many keys are involved in a secure communication session between two parties.

53 / 68

What is the primary difference between symmetric and asymmetric cryptography?

RTO is about time to recover the service, while RPO is about the point in time to which you can recover data.

54 / 68

An organization’s Business Continuity Plan specifies a Recovery Time Objective (RTO) of 2 hours and a Recovery Point Objective (RPO) of 15 minutes. What does this mean?

This mechanism uses the sender’s private key to sign a hash of the message.

55 / 68

When a physical signature is replaced by a cryptographic mechanism to provide non-repudiation for electronic documents, what is that mechanism called?

This architectural concept is named after a buffer zone between nations.

56 / 68

An organization places its public-facing web servers on a separate network segment that is protected by two firewalls, one between the servers and the internet, and another between the servers and the internal trusted network. What is this network segment commonly called?

This risk relates to the difficulty and expense of changing service providers.

57 / 68

What is the primary risk associated with ‘vendor lock-in’ in a cloud computing environment?

This technology allows devices on the same physical switch to be separated into different broadcast domains.

58 / 68

A network administrator wants to logically segment a switched network without making physical changes to the wiring. Which technology would be most appropriate for this task?

The name of this standard gives a strong clue about the type of industry and data it protects.

59 / 68

A security auditor is reviewing a company’s compliance with the Payment Card Industry Data Security Standard (PCI DSS). What type of data is the primary focus of this standard?

Consider the categories of authentication factors: something you know, something you have, and something you are.

60 / 68

A security administrator is configuring a system to require both a password and a code from a hardware token for login. Which term best describes this authentication setup?

This model is characterized by shared resources and is accessible over the internet.

61 / 68

Which of the following is a key characteristic of the public cloud deployment model?

Think about the day-to-day, hands-on activities required to defend a network.

62 / 68

What is the primary function of a Security Operations Center (SOC)?

This canon focuses on the individual’s personal integrity and adherence to the law.

63 / 68

Which of the (ISC)² Code of Ethics Canons requires members to ‘Act honorably, honestly, justly, responsibly, and legally’?

The scanner’s alert was incorrect, leading to wasted effort.

64 / 68

A vulnerability scanner reports that a web server is susceptible to a critical SQL injection vulnerability, but upon manual verification, a security analyst determines that the vulnerability does not actually exist. This is an example of what?

This concept refers to the totality of a system’s protective mechanisms.

65 / 68

Which of the following describes the ‘Trusted Computing Base’ (TCB) of a system?

Focus on what the daily backup’s point of reference is for determining which files to copy.

66 / 68

A system administrator implements a backup strategy that involves a full backup every Sunday and, on all other days, only backing up files that have changed since the last full backup on Sunday. What type of backup is performed on Monday through Saturday?

Consider when security should first be considered in a project’s lifecycle.

67 / 68

Which phase of the Secure Software Development Life Cycle (SDLC) is most concerned with creating threat models and defining security requirements?

This policy is directed at all users and governs their day-to-day behavior with company technology.

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What is the primary purpose of an Acceptable Use Policy (AUP)?

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