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75 CCSP Certification Questions to Conquer the Exam

The CCSP certification (Certified Cloud Security Professional) is widely recognized as the premier credential for cloud security expertise. In an era where organizations are rapidly migrating to the cloud, the demand for professionals who can design, manage, and secure data, applications, and infrastructure in the cloud has never been higher. Achieving the Certified Cloud Security Professional (CCSP) designation validates your advanced technical skills and demonstrates to employers that you have what it takes to secure their most critical assets. https://www.isc2.org/certifications/ccsp

Navigating the CCSP certification requires a deep understanding of cloud architecture, governance, and risk management. To help you prepare, we’ve analyzed key topics from our comprehensive CCSP exam practice test to provide you with insights into what you’ll face on exam day.

Note: You can access the full, interactive free CCSP certification practice test at the bottom of this post.

75 CCSP Certification Questions to Ace the Exam

Mastering Cloud Characteristics and Deployment Models

A fundamental part of the CCSP certification is understanding how cloud environments function and how they are deployed. The exam will test your ability to match specific business requirements to the correct cloud characteristics.

For example, cost management is a major driver for cloud adoption. If an organization needs a solution that dynamically increases compute resources during peak hours and automatically decreases them when demand falls, they are relying on Rapid Elasticity. This characteristic allows for the automatic scaling of resources, ensuring performance while optimizing costs—a critical concept for any Certified Cloud Security Professional (CCSP).

Similarly, you must be expert in deployment models. Consider a consortium of universities that wants to share a cloud environment for research. This environment needs to be accessible only to members and jointly governed. This is the textbook definition of a Community Cloud, a model designed for organizations with shared concerns, missions, or security requirements.

Securing Data and Applications in the Cloud

The core of the CCSP certification is, of course, security. As companies adopt multiple SaaS applications, the risk of data exfiltration increases. A Cloud Access Security Broker (CASB) is the essential tool for this scenario. Acting as a gatekeeper between on-premises infrastructure and cloud providers, a CASB allows organizations to centrally manage and enforce granular security policies across all their cloud services.

Data protection techniques are also heavily featured on any high-quality CCSP exam practice test. For compliance standards like PCI DSS, simply hiding data isn’t enough; you often need to retrieve the original data for processing. In this case, Tokenization is the superior choice over hashing or masking. Tokenization replaces sensitive data (like credit card numbers) with a non-sensitive equivalent (a token), while the original data is securely vaulted.

Advanced Data Sanitization: Crypto-shredding

In traditional data centers, you might physically destroy a hard drive to ensure data is gone forever. But how do you do that in a virtualized cloud environment where you don’t own the hardware? The CCSP certification curriculum teaches Crypto-shredding as the solution.

Crypto-shredding involves encrypting data with a strong key and then securely deleting the key itself. Without the key, the data is rendered mathematically unrecoverable, effectively “shredding” it without needing physical access to the storage media. Understanding these cloud-specific sanitization methods is vital for passing the exam.

Why Practice is Key to Your Success

The CCSP certification exam is challenging, requiring not just rote memorization but the application of concepts to complex scenarios. This is why utilizing a free CCSP practice test is one of the best preparation strategies. A good CCSP exam practice test will expose you to the style of questions you’ll encounter, helping you identify weak areas in your knowledge of the CCSP program. Please do not forget to checkout other free ISC2 Certifications on CertyBuddy.com: https://certybuddy.com/practice-tests/?vendor=isc2

Ready to prove your skills? Take the full, free CCSP practice test, quiz, and flashcards below to start your journey toward becoming a Certified Cloud Security Professional.

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75 CCSP Certification Questions to Ace the Exam

This specialized hardware device acts as a vault for the most sensitive secrets: cryptographic keys.

1 / 75

What is the primary role of a Hardware Security Module (HSM) in a cloud environment?

Consider the shared responsibility model and which party is responsible for managing the runtime environment.

2 / 75

A cloud architect is designing a system using serverless computing (e.g., AWS Lambda, Azure Functions). What is the most significant security advantage of this model compared to traditional IaaS VMs?

Consider the business stability and long-term health of the third-party provider.

3 / 75

An organization is using a SaaS provider for its HR system. The provider goes out of business with no warning, and the organization can no longer access its employee data. This is an example of what type of risk?

This assessment method relies on descriptive scales and subjective judgment rather than hard financial numbers.

4 / 75

A security team is conducting a risk assessment and is trying to prioritize risks. They categorize the likelihood of a risk as ‘Low’, ‘Medium’, or ‘High’ and the impact as ‘Low’, ‘Medium’, or ‘High’. What type of risk assessment are they performing?

Remember that one ‘objective’ relates to the acceptable downtime duration, and the other relates to the acceptable amount of data loss.

5 / 75

When designing a Business Continuity Plan for a critical application hosted in the cloud, an organization defines its Recovery Point Objective (RPO) as 15 minutes and its Recovery Time Objective (RTO) as 1 hour. What do these metrics imply?

One type of firewall has a ‘memory’ of ongoing conversations, while the other does not.

6 / 75

What is the primary difference between how a stateful firewall and a stateless firewall (packet filter) inspect traffic?

This technology embeds the security rules directly into the file itself, so protection follows the data.

7 / 75

A company wants to apply Information Rights Management (IRM) to a sensitive document to control its usage even after it has been shared with external partners. Which of the following capabilities is a core feature of an IRM solution?

One is the symptom, the other is the disease.

8 / 75

According to ITIL principles, what is the key difference between an ‘incident’ and a ‘problem’ in a cloud service context?

This U.S. government program creates a ‘do once, use many times’ framework for cloud service provider security assessments.

9 / 75

What is the primary purpose of FedRAMP in the United States?

To put events in the correct order, what piece of information must be consistent across all systems?

10 / 75

A security analyst is reviewing logs from a cloud environment and needs to correlate events from a web server, a database, and an identity provider to reconstruct a user’s activity. What is the most critical prerequisite for accurate log correlation?

This expenditure model treats IT as an ongoing utility cost rather than an upfront asset purchase.

11 / 75

An organization is considering migrating from an on-premises data center to a public cloud IaaS provider. The finance department is concerned about the shift from large, upfront capital expenditures (CapEx) to ongoing monthly payments. What is this financial model called?

Consider the meaning of ‘ephemeral’ and its implication for data persistence after an instance is terminated.

12 / 75

During a forensic investigation of a cloud environment, an analyst needs to collect data from several ephemeral compute instances that were automatically terminated by a scaling policy after a security incident. What is the most significant operational challenge the analyst will face?

This testing method examines the application’s code from the inside-out while it is ‘at rest’.

13 / 75

A developer is building a cloud-native application using a CI/CD pipeline. To identify security flaws in the source code before the application is compiled or run, which security testing methodology should be integrated into the pipeline?

This cryptographic function is used to create a unique ‘fingerprint’ of a file to prove it hasn’t been changed.

14 / 75

During a digital forensic investigation, an analyst makes a bit-for-bit copy of a virtual machine’s disk. The analyst then calculates a hash value for both the original disk image and the copy. What is the purpose of this action?

This mechanism involves creating a set of legally binding internal rules for data protection across a corporate group.

15 / 75

A US-based company wants to transfer PII of EU citizens from its German office to its cloud environment hosted in the US. The US does not have an adequacy decision from the EU. Which mechanism would provide a legally sound framework for this international data transfer?

This characteristic empowers the cloud consumer to act independently through a management console or API.

16 / 75

Which of the NIST’s five essential characteristics of cloud computing allows a customer to provision computing capabilities, such as server time and network storage, as needed automatically without requiring human interaction with the service provider?

Think about which function happens at runtime versus during the software development process.

17 / 75

An API Gateway is implemented in front of a set of backend microservices. Which of the following is NOT a primary security function of the API Gateway?

This testing approach is often called ‘black-box’ testing because it examines the application from the outside, with no knowledge of the internal code.

18 / 75

A security team wants to test their application’s defenses against common web vulnerabilities as defined by the OWASP Top 10. They need a testing tool that simulates attacks against the running application from an external perspective, without access to the source code. What type of tool should they use?

This risk relates to the amount of data that could be lost between the time of the last successful data copy and the disaster.

19 / 75

What is the primary risk associated with database replication latency in a geographically distributed disaster recovery architecture?

This program is designed to increase transparency into the security practices of cloud providers.

20 / 75

What is the primary goal of the Cloud Security Alliance (CSA) Security, Trust, Assurance and Risk (STAR) Registry?

Think about the complexity of managing different sets of tools and controls from multiple vendors.

21 / 75

A company is considering a multicloud strategy to avoid vendor lock-in and improve resiliency. What is the most significant security challenge introduced by this approach?

This technique increases security by ensuring that no single provider holds a complete, usable copy of the data.

22 / 75

A security team uses a technique that breaks encrypted data into smaller pieces and stores them across multiple cloud storage services from different vendors. What is this technique called?

The attack involves breaking the fundamental isolation provided by the virtualization layer.

23 / 75

An attacker gains access to a virtual machine in a public cloud and exploits a hypervisor vulnerability to access data on another customer’s VM running on the same physical host. What type of attack has occurred?

This practice aims to make security a continuous part of the development process, rather than a final gate.

24 / 75

A company uses a DevSecOps approach for its cloud applications, leveraging Infrastructure as Code (IaC) and a CI/CD pipeline. What is the primary purpose of integrating security tools into the CI/CD pipeline?

This hardware component is designed to ensure the integrity of the platform, starting from the moment it powers on.

25 / 75

What is the primary function of a Trusted Platform Module (TPM) in securing a physical server used in a cloud data center?

This key management model is often called ‘BYOK’.

26 / 75

An organization’s security policy requires that all data stored in their IaaS environment be encrypted at rest. They want a solution where the cloud provider manages the encryption and decryption process transparently, but the organization maintains full control over the cryptographic keys. What type of key management solution should they use?

This principle is about doing your homework before making a commitment.

27 / 75

What is the legal principle of ‘due diligence’ as it applies to an organization selecting a cloud service provider?

The solution must be able to control traffic flow between individual containers, often referred to as ‘east-west’ traffic.

28 / 75

An organization is using a containerized microservices architecture. A key security requirement is to enforce network policies that control which microservices can communicate with each other. What is the most appropriate security control for this purpose?

Availability Zones are designed to be independent failure domains within a larger geographic area.

29 / 75

A company has deployed a critical web application across three different Availability Zones within a single cloud region. What type of risk is this architecture primarily designed to mitigate?

Consider the test type that allows the recovery site to be activated and tested while the main site continues to operate normally.

30 / 75

During a disaster recovery test for a cloud-based system, the team follows the DR plan to restore services in a separate cloud region, but they do not shut down the primary production environment. What type of test is being conducted?

Cloud storage services have evolved to include specific features to meet compliance requirements like SEC Rule 17a-4(f).

31 / 75

An organization is migrating its data warehouse to the cloud. The legal team is concerned that if they receive an eDiscovery request, they will not be able to place a ‘legal hold’ on data stored in the cloud provider’s immutable, versioned object storage. What is the most accurate response to this concern?

This storage type is often compared to a limitless valet parking service for data, where each piece of data is an ‘object’ with its own claim ticket.

32 / 75

A developer needs to store unstructured data, such as images and videos, in the cloud. The data needs to be highly durable, scalable to petabytes, and accessible over the internet via an API. Which cloud storage type is the best fit?

This principle is about giving just enough access, and no more.

33 / 75

A security professional is implementing an Identity and Access Management (IAM) policy in a cloud environment. The policy should grant a user the minimum permissions required to perform a specific task and nothing more. What security principle is being applied?

Consider the solution that keeps the physical root of trust for the keys entirely within the customer’s own data center.

34 / 75

A financial institution wants to use a public cloud but has strict regulatory requirements for the physical security and lifecycle management of the cryptographic keys used to encrypt its data. Which solution would provide the highest level of assurance and control?

This right allows individuals to request the complete deletion of their personal data from a company’s systems.

35 / 75

Under the GDPR, what is the ‘right to erasure’ also commonly known as?

Consider which report type covers operational effectiveness over time and focuses on security and availability principles.

36 / 75

An organization is evaluating a SaaS provider and needs assurance about the effectiveness of the provider’s security, availability, and confidentiality controls over a period of time. Which audit report would be most appropriate to request?

This security model’s motto could be ‘never trust, always verify’.

37 / 75

What is the primary security benefit of implementing a zero trust architecture in a cloud environment?

This process helps the organization prioritize which services and applications are most important to recover after a disaster.

38 / 75

What is the primary purpose of conducting a Business Impact Analysis (BIA) as part of a cloud business continuity planning process?

This phase involves data in motion, so the control should focus on monitoring and regulating data flows.

39 / 75

In the context of the cloud data lifecycle, which security control is most relevant during the ‘Share’ phase?

This role holds ultimate accountability and makes the high-level decisions about the data’s sensitivity.

40 / 75

When defining a data classification policy for the cloud, what is the primary role of the Data Owner?

This common storage technology uses striping with parity to achieve data resiliency.

41 / 75

When configuring a storage cluster in the cloud for high availability and data protection, a design uses a technique where data is broken into chunks, and parity information is calculated and stored across different drives or nodes. If one drive fails, the data can be reconstructed from the remaining data and parity chunks. What is this technique called?

This legal concept dictates that data is subject to the laws of the country where it is physically stored.

42 / 75

A German company uses a US-based cloud provider to process the personal data of its German employees. What is the primary legal consideration under GDPR regarding the physical location of this data?

In a client-SaaS provider relationship, the SaaS provider typically fills this role.

43 / 75

What is the role of a data processor under GDPR?

In this redundancy model, ‘N’ represents the number of components needed, and the ‘+1’ represents the spare.

44 / 75

A cloud provider’s data center design includes N+1 redundancy for its power and cooling systems. What does this mean?

This technology creates a secure ‘enclave’ for data and code during execution.

45 / 75

A company operating in a highly regulated industry wants to use a public IaaS provider but must ensure that certain sensitive data, while being processed, is completely isolated even from the cloud provider’s administrators and hypervisor. What emerging technology is designed to address this requirement?

Think about the difference between the ability to grow versus the ability to automatically adjust to fluctuating demand.

46 / 75

An organization is architecting a cloud solution that must dynamically increase compute resources during peak business hours and automatically decrease them during off-peak hours to manage costs effectively. Which cloud characteristic is most critical for achieving this requirement?

The requirement is to replace the sensitive data with a placeholder that can be used to retrieve the original data when needed.

47 / 75

A financial services company stores sensitive customer data, including credit card numbers, in a cloud database. For compliance with PCI DSS, they need to render the card numbers unreadable in the database but must be able to retrieve the original numbers for transaction processing. Which data security technique is most appropriate?

Consider a method that relies on cryptographic principles rather than physical actions to render data unreadable.

48 / 75

An organization needs to securely delete data stored on virtual disks in an IaaS environment. Since they cannot physically access and destroy the storage media, what is the most effective data sanitization method to ensure the data is irrecoverable?

This STRIDE category directly relates to the security principle of Integrity.

49 / 75

In the STRIDE threat model, what security property is violated when an attacker successfully modifies data in transit without authorization?

This framework focuses on granting permissions (authorization) rather than verifying identity (authentication).

50 / 75

A developer wants to grant a cloud-based application permission to access a user’s data from another service (e.g., Google Photos) without the application ever handling the user’s password. Which framework is specifically designed for this delegated authorization scenario?

In a Platform as a Service model, the customer brings the application and the data. Who is responsible for securing them?

51 / 75

An organization is deploying an application on a PaaS platform. According to the shared responsibility model, which of the following security tasks is the organization MOST likely responsible for?

How can the principles of review, testing, and approval be applied in a software development workflow?

52 / 75

An organization has a robust change management process for its on-premises infrastructure. When moving to a cloud environment managed via Infrastructure as Code (IaC), how should this process adapt?

Consider the deployment model designed for a group of organizations with a shared purpose or mission.

53 / 75

A consortium of state universities wants to create a shared cloud environment to host research applications and data. The environment must be accessible only to member universities and will be jointly funded and governed. Which cloud deployment model best fits this scenario?

This metric is commonly expressed as a percentage, such as ‘five nines’.

54 / 75

An organization is drafting a Service Level Agreement (SLA) with a cloud provider for a critical service. The business has determined it can tolerate no more than 4 hours of downtime per year. Which SLA metric should be specified to reflect this requirement?

The most effective control stops the undesirable action from ever occurring.

55 / 75

A security architect wants to prevent developers from accidentally creating publicly accessible cloud storage buckets. Which type of control would be most effective?

This practice ensures that all new systems start from a consistent and secure foundation.

56 / 75

An organization wants to create a ‘golden image’ for their virtual machine deployments in the cloud. What is the security purpose of this image?

This tool acts as a central nervous system for security alerts and logs.

57 / 75

Which of the following describes a key benefit of using a Security Information and Event Management (SIEM) system in a cloud environment?

The problem lies in the inability of two different systems—the application and the cloud network—to work together effectively.

58 / 75

An organization is migrating a legacy application to an IaaS cloud environment. The application relies on broadcast messages for service discovery, a feature not supported by the cloud provider’s virtual network. This is an example of a failure in which cloud shared consideration?

Think about the three main service models (IaaS, PaaS, SaaS) and which one delivers a complete, ready-to-use application to the user.

59 / 75

Which of the following would be considered an ‘application capability’ type in the context of cloud service capabilities?

Think about the role responsible for the day-to-day, hands-on management and protection of the data asset according to policy.

60 / 75

A data owner at a company defines a policy stating that all customer PII must be encrypted at rest. In a cloud environment, who is typically considered the data custodian responsible for implementing this control?

Think about how defining your infrastructure in code simplifies the process of rebuilding it from scratch.

61 / 75

A security operations team uses an Infrastructure as Code (IaC) tool like Terraform to manage their cloud environment. After a ransomware attack encrypts several virtual servers, what is the most significant advantage of using IaC for recovery?

Think about how the identity provider communicates the user’s authenticated status to the service provider without sharing the user’s actual password.

62 / 75

An organization uses a federated identity model where its on-premises Active Directory is the Identity Provider (IdP). An employee attempts to access a partner’s SaaS application, which acts as the Service Provider (SP). What is the primary role of SAML in this transaction?

Think about a centralized group or function responsible for establishing best practices and standards for cloud usage across an organization.

63 / 75

A security audit of a cloud environment reveals that several development teams have provisioned their own object storage buckets with inconsistent security configurations, including some with public access. What cloud governance practice would best prevent this issue?

Look for the policy document that defines what customers are allowed and not allowed to do on the provider’s platform.

64 / 75

When a cloud customer is notified by their provider that they must perform a penetration test only within a specific timeframe and against a specific set of IP addresses, what document governs these rules of engagement?

This attack involves forcing a server to make requests on the attacker’s behalf.

65 / 75

An attacker compromises a web server and uses it to send malicious requests to another internal system that is not directly accessible from the internet. The internal system trusts requests coming from the web server. What type of attack is this?

Consider which party controls the virtualization layer in an Infrastructure as a Service model.

66 / 75

A cloud customer is using an IaaS provider. A new vulnerability is discovered in the hypervisor software used by the provider. According to the shared responsibility model, who is responsible for patching the hypervisor?

This data format doesn’t fit into a rigid relational database schema but does have organizational markers.

67 / 75

An XML file containing customer order data, with tags like `

`, ``, and ``, is best categorized as what type of data?

Consider the risk that comes from the dependencies and libraries that an application is built upon.

68 / 75

A company is conducting a software supply chain security review for a new SaaS application they plan to use. Which of the following is the most critical area of concern?

First, calculate the Annualized Rate of Occurrence (ARO) from the given frequency.

69 / 75

A risk assessment team is evaluating the financial impact of a potential data breach. They calculate the cost of a single breach (Single Loss Expectancy – SLE) to be $200,000. Historical data suggests such a breach is likely to occur once every five years. What is the Annualized Loss Expectancy (ALE)?

In the PaaS shared responsibility model, the customer is responsible for their own application and data.

70 / 75

An organization is using a PaaS database service. Which of the following threats is the customer primarily responsible for mitigating?

Look for a solution that acts as a security intermediary between users and multiple cloud services.

71 / 75

A company is migrating to a cloud environment and is concerned about data exfiltration and enforcing granular access policies across multiple SaaS applications. Which security solution would be most effective for centrally managing and enforcing these security policies?

Consider a centralized, managed service designed specifically for securely storing and accessing sensitive information at runtime.

72 / 75

When securing secrets such as API keys and database credentials for a cloud application, what is the recommended best practice to avoid hardcoding them in source code?

Think about the legal and logistical complexities that arise when data crosses international borders and is not physically controlled by the organization.

73 / 75

During a legal investigation, a company is required to produce all electronic communications related to a specific project. The data is spread across an IaaS provider’s object storage, ephemeral compute instances, and a third-party SaaS email service. What presents the most significant challenge for the eDiscovery process?

Focus on the control that provides stateful filtering at the instance level, automatically allowing return traffic.

74 / 75

A security architect is designing a network for an IaaS environment. The design requires stateful filtering of traffic to and from individual virtual machines, allowing specific protocols and ports while denying all other traffic. Which cloud-native security control is best suited for this purpose?

This server acts as a secure gateway for administrators, limiting direct exposure of private systems to external networks.

75 / 75

What is the primary function of a bastion host or jumpbox in a cloud network architecture?

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