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70+ Free CISM Practice Test Questions to Test your Knowledge

The CISM certification (Certified Information Security Manager) is one of the most respected credentials for professionals responsible for designing, governing, and overseeing enterprise information security programs. Unlike deeply technical certifications, Certified Information Security Manager (CISM) focuses on aligning security initiatives with business objectives, managing risk, and demonstrating leadership-level decision-making.

This guide is designed for professionals considering the CISM certification, those actively enrolled in CISM training, and security leaders who want to validate their governance and management knowledge. You’ll learn what the exam truly tests, how ISACA expects you to think, and how to approach preparation in a way that builds long-term professional competence—not short-term memorization.

A complete free practice test, quiz, and flashcards related to this topic are available at the bottom of this article.

70+ Free CISM Practice Test Questions to Test your Knowledge

What Is the CISM Certification and Who Is It For?

The CISM certification, issued by ISACA, validates a professional’s ability to manage, design, and govern an organization’s information security program. It is explicitly designed for security managers, CISOs, IT governance professionals, and risk leaders, rather than hands-on technical specialists.

Where many certifications focus on how to configure systems, CISM focuses on why decisions are made, who owns them, and how security supports enterprise goals.

Ideal Candidates for CISM

CISM is best suited for professionals who:

  • Manage or oversee information security programs
  • Communicate security risk to executive leadership or boards
  • Align cybersecurity initiatives with business strategy
  • Own accountability for governance, compliance, and risk

This managerial focus is why CISM is often pursued after several years of security or IT experience.


Understanding the CISM Exam Philosophy

One of the most common mistakes candidates make during CISM training is treating the exam like a technical test. ISACA exams assess judgment, governance alignment, and managerial prioritization.

The exam scenarios are written from the perspective of:

  • Senior management responsibility
  • Enterprise-wide risk ownership
  • Policy-driven decision-making
  • Business-first outcomes

This perspective is reflected clearly in real practice questions, where the correct answer is often the one that best supports organizational governance, not the most technically impressive option .


Domain 1: Information Security Governance

Why Governance Is the Foundation of CISM

Information security governance defines how security supports enterprise objectives. In CISM certification, governance is not about writing technical controls—it’s about authority, accountability, and strategic alignment.

A recurring concept in CISM scenarios is formal authorization. For example, when establishing a new information security program, the most critical document is not a policy or risk register, but a security program charter. The charter provides executive approval, defines scope, assigns authority, and legitimizes the program at the enterprise level.

Exam-Relevant Insight

ISACA expects candidates to recognize that:

  • Policies guide behavior, but charters authorize programs
  • Governance originates from senior leadership
  • Security must operate within enterprise strategy

A common pitfall is selecting operational documents when the question is clearly asking about governance authority.


Domain 2: Information Risk Management

Risk Management Through a Business Lens

Risk management in CISM certification focuses on identifying, analyzing, and responding to risk in a way that supports business objectives—not eliminating risk entirely.

CISM emphasizes:

  • Risk appetite and tolerance
  • Regulatory and compliance obligations
  • Cost-benefit analysis of controls

For example, regulatory requirements such as HIPAA primarily introduce compliance risk, not operational or strategic risk. Understanding this distinction is essential, as ISACA often tests whether candidates can correctly classify risk types and respond appropriately.

Practical Example

If an organization fails to comply with industry regulations, the immediate exposure is to legal penalties, fines, and sanctions—a textbook compliance risk. Mislabeling this as financial or operational risk is a frequent exam error.


Domain 3: Information Security Program Development and Management

From Strategy to Execution

This domain examines how security strategies are translated into operational programs. The CISM certification tests your ability to design programs that are:

  • Aligned with governance objectives
  • Measurable and repeatable
  • Properly resourced and accountable

A key concept here is role clarity. ISACA frequently uses frameworks such as RACI to test governance understanding.

RACI and Accountability

In a RACI matrix:

  • Accountable is the single individual who owns the outcome
  • Responsibility may be delegated, but accountability cannot

Many candidates incorrectly assume accountability equals hands-on execution. In reality, accountability reflects final authority and ownership, even when tasks are delegated.


Domain 4: Information Security Incident Management

Incident Management as a Business Process

Incident management in CISM is less about forensic techniques and more about preparedness, coordination, and communication.

Key focus areas include:

  • Incident response planning
  • Roles and escalation paths
  • Executive communication
  • Post-incident review and improvement

ISACA expects candidates to understand that incidents are not just technical failures—they are business disruptions that require governance-level oversight.


Domain 5: Governance Integration with Corporate Strategy

Security as an Enabler, Not an Obstacle

A defining theme of Certified Information Security Manager CISM is that security must enable business objectives. This is especially evident in questions involving board-level communication.

For instance, when presenting the state of the security program to a board of directors, the most effective approach is aligning security metrics with strategic business goals. Boards are not interested in firewall configurations or vulnerability counts—they care about how security:

  • Protects revenue
  • Preserves reputation
  • Enables growth

This concept appears repeatedly in CISM-style scenarios .


Domain 6: Frameworks, Standards, and Enterprise Governance

Understanding Framework Purpose

CISM does not require memorization of every framework detail, but it does expect you to understand why frameworks exist.

Take COBIT as an example. From a governance perspective, COBIT’s primary objective is to:

  • Optimize risk and resource utilization
  • Deliver value to stakeholders
  • Align IT with enterprise goals

COBIT is not a technical checklist or a mandatory control set. Selecting answers that suggest otherwise is a common exam mistake.


Domain 7: Data Ownership and Stewardship

Ownership vs. Custodianship

CISM places strong emphasis on data governance roles. Understanding the distinction between data owners, data stewards, and custodians is critical.

When a data owner delegates day-to-day management responsibilities—such as access control implementation—the receiving role is typically the data steward. Ownership remains with the data owner, reinforcing ISACA’s principle that accountability is not transferable.


How to Approach CISM Training Effectively

Think Like ISACA, Not Like an Engineer

Successful CISM training focuses on:

  • Reading questions from a governance perspective
  • Prioritizing business alignment
  • Selecting answers that reflect policy, authority, and accountability

Avoid overemphasizing tools or technical depth. The exam rewards managerial judgment, not configuration knowledge.

Use Practice Tests for Knowledge Validation

High-quality practice questions help validate your understanding of:

  • Governance concepts
  • Risk classification
  • Managerial decision-making

Practice tests should be treated as diagnostic tools, highlighting knowledge gaps and reinforcing correct reasoning—not as predictors or guarantees of exam outcomes.


External References for Deeper Study

For authoritative guidance, consult official sources alongside your studies:


Conclusion: Building Real Security Leadership with CISM

The CISM certification is not about memorizing facts—it’s about demonstrating that you can govern, manage, and lead an enterprise information security program effectively. By understanding ISACA’s governance-first mindset, aligning security with business strategy, and practicing scenario-based reasoning, candidates develop skills that extend far beyond the exam.

If you are preparing for the Certified Information Security Manager CISM credential, the most effective next step is to actively validate your knowledge, identify weak areas, and reinforce conceptual understanding.

Start now by exploring CertyBuddy’s free CISM practice test, quizzes, and flashcards to assess your readiness and strengthen your confidence before exam day. Please do not forget to checkout other free ISACA practice tests on CertyBuddy.com: https://certybuddy.com/practice-tests/?vendor=isaca

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70+ CISM Practice Test Questions

The name of this threat actor is a blend of their methods and their motivation.

1 / 71

Which of the following threat actors is primarily characterized by using hacking techniques to promote a political or social agenda?

The key word in the name of this tool is ‘balanced’, implying a multi-faceted approach to measurement.

2 / 71

What is the primary objective of implementing an IT balanced scorecard (BSC)?

This model gets its name from the way progress flows steadily downwards through each stage.

3 / 71

Which software development model is characterized by sequential phases where each phase must be completed before the next one begins?

This entity acts as the trusted root for verifying identities within the system.

4 / 71

In a public key infrastructure (PKI), what is the function of a Certificate Authority (CA)?

This process focuses on maintaining a detailed record of all IT components and their attributes.

5 / 71

An IT department is having difficulty tracking the authorized configurations of its hundreds of servers, leading to inconsistencies. Which process and associated tool should be implemented to remedy this?

Consider the hierarchy of strategy within an organization, from the highest level down to specific functions.

6 / 71

Which of the following BEST describes the relationship between information security governance and corporate governance?

This role acts on behalf of the owner to handle the practical, daily governance of a data asset.

7 / 71

A data owner has delegated the day-to-day responsibility for managing access controls and implementing security policies for a specific dataset to another individual. What is this individual’s role?

This contractual provision gives an organization the ability to ‘trust but verify’ a vendor’s security claims.

8 / 71

In the context of third-party risk management, what is the purpose of a ‘right to audit’ clause in a contract with a vendor?

For a message to be secret, it must be encrypted in a way that only the intended recipient can decrypt it.

9 / 71

A sender wishes to provide confidentiality for a message sent to a receiver using asymmetric cryptography. The sender should encrypt the message with:

This common attack uses bait (a deceptive email) to lure in victims.

10 / 71

An attacker sends a legitimate-looking email to an employee with a link that, when clicked, attempts to steal their login credentials. This is an example of what type of attack?

This indicator is predictive and serves as an early warning system for potential problems.

11 / 71

A security manager is defining a metric to predict the likelihood of future security incidents based on current trends, such as an increase in phishing attempts. This type of metric is BEST described as a:

Consider the names of the certifications themselves: one emphasizes ‘Governance’ and the other emphasizes ‘Risk’.

12 / 71

What is the key difference between a CGEIT and a CRISC certification?

Consider the primary focus of a board of directors: strategy and business success.

13 / 71

A CISO is presenting the state of the information security program to the board of directors. Which of the following is the most effective approach to communicate the program’s value?

This final phase focuses on learning from the experience to avoid repeating mistakes.

14 / 71

What is the primary goal of the ‘Post-Incident Activity’ phase in the incident response lifecycle?

In this model, the customer is essentially renting the raw computing, storage, and networking hardware.

15 / 71

Which of the following cloud service models provides the customer with the HIGHEST level of control over the operating system and applications?

This model defines a path of advancement through several distinct levels of process maturity.

16 / 71

The concept that security is a continuous process of improvement rather than a state to be achieved is best reflected in which model?

Consider the challenges of verifying personnel credentials across international borders.

17 / 71

An organization is considering insourcing a critical IT function versus outsourcing it offshore. What is a key security risk associated with the offshore outsourcing option that must be carefully managed?

This team model doesn’t have full-time members but is assembled as needed from existing staff.

18 / 71

A Computer Security Incident Response Team (CSIRT) is composed of individuals who have other primary job roles within the organization and are called upon only when an incident occurs. What type of CSIRT model is this?

This plan addresses the ‘business’ side of a disaster, not just the technology.

19 / 71

A Business Continuity Plan (BCP) primarily focuses on:

This security practice is analogous to using bulkheads on a ship to contain a flood to one compartment.

20 / 71

What is the primary benefit of network segmentation?

This technology involves systems that can learn and make decisions, creating new categories of risk.

21 / 71

According to the provided materials, what emerging technology risk is receiving increased focus across all ISACA certification curricula, including the updated CRISC exam?

To calculate the annual expected loss, you must first determine the annual probability of the event.

22 / 71

A quantitative risk analysis determined the Single Loss Expectancy (SLE) for a server failure is $50,000. Historical data suggests a failure of this type occurs, on average, once every two years. What is the Annualized Loss Expectancy (ALE)?

This role is singular for any given task and signifies where ultimate responsibility lies.

23 / 71

What is the primary purpose of the ‘accountable’ role in a RACI matrix for information security governance?

Effective response to any emergency always begins before the emergency occurs.

24 / 71

Which of the following describes the correct order of the first four phases in the NIST incident response lifecycle?

This type of control is used when a required primary control cannot be implemented.

25 / 71

An organization’s security policy states that all sensitive data must be encrypted. A specific legacy system cannot support the required encryption standard. Management accepts the risk but requires that access to the system be restricted to a segmented network and monitored 24/7. This additional measure is an example of a:

This foundational security principle aims to minimize the potential damage from a compromised account.

26 / 71

The principle that users and systems should be granted only the access rights and permissions necessary to perform their assigned tasks is known as:

This analysis is about comparing ‘where we are’ to ‘where we want to be’.

27 / 71

Which of the following is the BEST reason for an information security manager to perform a gap analysis?

One plan focuses on the ‘business’ and the other on the ‘technology’ that supports it.

28 / 71

What is the relationship between a Business Continuity Plan (BCP) and a Disaster Recovery Plan (DRP)?

Calculate the net benefit for each option by subtracting the cost of the control from the amount of risk it reduces.

29 / 71

A company is considering two risk mitigation options. Option A costs $20,000 annually and reduces the ALE from $100,000 to $30,000. Option B costs $15,000 annually and reduces the ALE to $40,000. From a purely financial perspective, which option provides the best return on security investment (ROSI)?

This system acts as a central nervous system for security alerts and logs.

30 / 71

What is the primary purpose of a security information and event management (SIEM) system?

The key here is the use of ‘multiple external sources’ to attack the availability of a service.

31 / 71

A security analyst is reviewing firewall logs and notices a large volume of traffic from multiple external sources aimed at a single web server, causing it to become unresponsive. This is characteristic of what type of attack?

This objective is focused on data loss, not system downtime.

32 / 71

An organization determines its Recovery Point Objective (RPO) is one hour. What does this mean for its backup strategy?

This body acts as a governance gate for modifications to the production environment.

33 / 71

What is the primary function of a Change Advisory Board (CAB) within an IT change management process?

This tier represents a shift from reactive or project-based risk management to proactive, consistent, and policy-driven practices.

34 / 71

In the NIST Cybersecurity Framework (CSF), which Implementation Tier describes an organization where risk management practices are formally approved as policy and there is an organization-wide approach to managing cybersecurity risk?

This principle is designed to prevent a single individual from having end-to-end control over a critical process.

35 / 71

An organization’s policy requires that a developer cannot deploy their own code to the production environment; a separate operations team must perform the deployment. This is an implementation of which security principle?

The name of the process is directly related to the type of issue found in the scan report.

36 / 71

A vulnerability scan report shows a ‘Missing Patch’ vulnerability on a critical server. This indicates a failure in which operational security process?

This term describes what is ‘left over’ after security efforts have been applied.

37 / 71

The level of risk that remains after management has implemented security controls is known as:

Think of an attacker moving sideways across a network from one machine to another.

38 / 71

A penetration tester gains initial access to a network and then uses that foothold to move to other systems within the same network. This technique is known as:

Think of the standard that defines the ‘language’ of threat intelligence, not the ‘delivery truck’ that transports it.

39 / 71

A security analyst is using a threat intelligence feed that is formatted using a structured language for cyber threat intelligence. The language allows for the expression of TTPs, indicators, and campaigns. Which standard is being used?

This type of control identifies an issue after it has already happened.

40 / 71

Which of the following is an example of a detective security control?

This term represents the ‘shifting left’ of security in the development process.

41 / 71

The practice of integrating security into every phase of the software development lifecycle, from requirements to deployment, is best described as:

This detective control is effective because fraudulent activities often require constant attention from the perpetrator.

42 / 71

What is the primary benefit of implementing mandatory vacation policies for employees in sensitive roles?

Think about making security a natural part of how the business operates, rather than a separate, burdensome process.

43 / 71

In developing an information security program, why is it critical to align the program with the operational objectives of other business functions like HR and Procurement?

This metric is concerned with the duration of an outage, not the amount of data lost.

44 / 71

During a Business Impact Analysis (BIA), the team determines that a critical billing system can be down for a maximum of four hours before the business suffers unacceptable financial losses. What does this four-hour period represent?

This test involves actually ‘pulling the plug’ on the primary production site.

45 / 71

Which type of disaster recovery test is the MOST disruptive but provides the highest level of assurance?

Consider how this action changes who bears the financial burden of a security incident.

46 / 71

An organization decides to purchase cybersecurity insurance to cover potential financial losses from a data breach. This is an example of which risk treatment strategy?

Think about the foundational document that formally authorizes a new major initiative within an organization.

47 / 71

An information security manager is establishing a new security program. Which document is most critical for providing the manager with the necessary authority and defining the program’s scope and objectives?

This control is focused on keeping secrets secret.

48 / 71

What is the primary purpose of data encryption?

This control involves periodically changing an employee’s role within the organization.

49 / 71

An organization has implemented a policy where employees are moved between different job responsibilities every two years. This is an example of:

This type of recovery site is always ‘on’ and ready for immediate use.

50 / 71

An alternate processing site that has all the necessary hardware, software, and real-time data replication from the primary site, ready to take over with minimal to no downtime, is called a:

This process ensures the integrity of the evidence by creating a ‘digital fingerprint’.

51 / 71

When collecting digital evidence for a potential legal proceeding, what is the purpose of creating a hash of the original media?

The goal of this phase is to stop the bleeding and prevent the problem from getting worse.

52 / 71

During a security incident, the response team isolates several compromised servers on a separate network segment with highly restricted access. This action is part of which incident response phase?

This principle of the triad is concerned with the accuracy and trustworthiness of information.

53 / 71

In the context of the CIA triad, an attack that modifies data on a financial report without authorization is a violation of:

The ‘M’ in CISM stands for Manager, which points to its core focus area.

54 / 71

A key difference between CISA and CISM certifications is that CISA focuses on assurance and auditing, while CISM focuses on:

Think about the high-level purpose of a governance framework like COBIT in relation to the business.

55 / 71

A financial institution is implementing the COBIT framework. What is the primary objective of this implementation from a governance perspective?

This legal arrangement involves a trusted third party holding onto a valuable asset.

56 / 71

When an organization purchases a critical application from a small software company, what contractual provision is essential to ensure continued access to the application’s code if the vendor goes out of business?

Consider the order of volatility, from the most transient data to the most permanent.

57 / 71

A forensic investigator needs to collect evidence from a live system. Which type of data should they collect FIRST due to its volatility?

This term refers to technology that operates in the ‘shadows’, hidden from the official IT and security functions.

58 / 71

What is the primary security concern with the ‘shadow IT’ phenomenon?

This document answers the ‘how-to’ question for a specific activity.

59 / 71

Which document in a policy framework provides mandatory, step-by-step instructions for performing a specific task, such as creating a new user account?

Think about the desired outcome for the general employee population, not just the IT or security teams.

60 / 71

What is the primary goal of an information security awareness program?

This type of test simulates an attacker who is completely on the outside, with no internal information.

61 / 71

Which of the following BEST describes a black-box penetration test?

This privacy principle addresses the question of ‘how long should we keep this data?’

62 / 71

An organization has a policy of not retaining customer data for more than one year after an account is closed. This policy is primarily aimed at which data privacy principle?

This type of indicator measures how well a specific process is operating against its targets.

63 / 71

A security manager is developing metrics to measure the effectiveness of the security program. A metric that tracks ‘the number of days to patch critical vulnerabilities’ would be best classified as a:

This technology is focused on the ‘data’ itself and stopping it from ‘leaking’ out.

64 / 71

An employee resigns and takes a job with a competitor. The information security manager is concerned about the potential for data exfiltration. Which control is specifically designed to detect and prevent the unauthorized transfer of sensitive data out of the network?

The ‘A’ in this certification’s name is the key to its role in the GRC lifecycle.

65 / 71

An ISACA whitepaper describes the GRC lifecycle as moving from strategic oversight, through risk analysis and program management, to independent assurance. Which certification aligns with independent assurance?

Consider the accounting classification for a major, long-term asset purchase versus ongoing operational costs.

66 / 71

When budgeting for a new Security Information and Event Management (SIEM) system, the one-time cost of purchasing the hardware and software licenses should be classified as:

This formal process results in an official opinion on compliance or effectiveness, often for external stakeholders.

67 / 71

An information security manager needs to ensure that the organization’s security posture is regularly evaluated by an independent party to provide assurance to stakeholders. The most appropriate activity for this is a(n):

This formal review process requires managers to ‘attest’ to the validity of their team’s permissions.

68 / 71

An organization conducts regular reviews where managers must validate that their employees’ access rights are still appropriate for their job roles. This process is known as:

This RAID level is named for its method of creating an identical reflection of the data on a second disk.

69 / 71

To protect against the failure of a single hard drive in a server, an administrator configures two drives to hold identical copies of the data. What RAID level has been implemented?

This proactive security activity starts with the mindset that attackers are already inside the network.

70 / 71

A threat hunting team is operating under the assumption that the network is already compromised and is actively searching for indicators of compromise (IoCs). This approach is best described as:

The name of the regulation itself points to the category of risk involved.

71 / 71

An organization is required to comply with the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA). Which type of risk is most directly addressed by ensuring compliance with this regulation?

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