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74 SSCP Practice Questions to Dominate the Exam

The SSCP practice test is the ultimate tool for IT professionals aiming to earn the Systems Security Certified Practitioner (SSCP) credential. As a globally recognized SSCP certification, it validates your ability to implement, monitor, and administer IT infrastructure in accordance with information security policies. However, the exam is known for its challenging, scenario-based questions that test your practical application of security concepts.

To help you prepare, we’ve analyzed key topics from our free practice test to provide you with the insights needed to succeed. Mastering these concepts is essential for anyone serious about passing the SSCP certification exam. https://www.isc2.org/certifications/sscp

Note: You can access the full, interactive SSCP practice test at the bottom of this post.

74 SSCP Practice Questions to Dominate the Exam

Mastering Access Controls and Security Operations

A core component of the SSCP certification is understanding how to implement effective controls. One of the most frequently tested concepts on any practice test is Separation of Duties (SoD).

SoD is a preventive administrative control designed to minimize fraud and error. For example, if an organization implements a policy where new vendor creation and payment authorization must be performed by two different employees, this is a direct application of Separation of Duties. By ensuring that no single individual can execute a critical function from start to finish, the organization reduces the risk of a single point of compromise.

Differentiating Security Documents: Policies vs. Standards

The SSCP exam requires you to distinguish between various types of security governance documents. A common pitfall on the practice test is confusing a policy with a standard.

  • Policy: A high-level document that outlines senior management’s intent and direction.
  • Standard: A mandatory document that specifies exact configuration settings and requirements.

If a document specifies the exact configuration settings for all Windows servers, including password complexity and firewall rules, it is a Standard. Understanding this hierarchy is crucial for the SSCP certification.

Ethics in the SSCP Certification

The (ISC)² Code of Ethics is a mandatory study area. The code is divided into four canons, and the SSCP practice test often asks you to identify the specific canon applicable to a scenario.

Canon 3 is particularly important for practitioners. It requires a professional to “Provide diligent and competent service to principals.” Crucially, this is the only canon where complaints can only be filed by the professional’s employer or client (the principal). Knowing these nuances can save you valuable points on exam day.

Business Continuity vs. Disaster Recovery

While often used together, Business Continuity Planning (BCP) and Disaster Recovery Planning (DRP) have distinct goals. A Business Continuity Plan (BCP) is primarily concerned with maintaining critical business functions during a disruption. It focuses on keeping the lights on and the business running, even at a reduced capacity. In contrast, DRP focuses on restoring IT systems after they have gone down. This distinction is a staple of the practice test and essential knowledge for any SSCP holder.

Change Management: The Safety Net

Effective security administration involves managing change without introducing risk. A formal change management process always includes a backout plan (or rollback plan).

The primary purpose of a backout plan is to provide a structured way to revert to the previous state if the change fails. Whether it’s a failed server patch or a misconfigured firewall rule, having a tested backout plan ensures system stability and availability, a key operational requirement tested in the SSCP certification.

Conclusion

The road to SSCP certification is paved with practical knowledge and rigorous preparation. By focusing on core concepts like Separation of Duties, security standards, and business continuity, you build a solid foundation for success. Don’t rely on theory alone; test your skills with a high-quality SSCP practice test. lease do not forget to checkout other free ISC2 Certifications on CertyBuddy.com: https://certybuddy.com/practice-tests/?vendor=isc2

Ready to become a Systems Security Certified Practitioner? Take the full, free SSCP practice test, Quiz, and Flashcards below to start your journey today!

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74 SSCP Practice Questions to Dominate the Exam

Think about the difference between ‘continuing’ operations versus ‘recovering’ them after they have stopped.

1 / 74

A business continuity plan (BCP) is primarily concerned with what objective?

This security area is concerned with the journey of a product from its creation to its delivery to the end user.

2 / 74

A company is concerned that a hardware vendor might be compromised, leading to tampered equipment being delivered. This is a risk primarily associated with which area of security management?

This device is the least intelligent of the network devices and simply repeats electrical signals.

3 / 74

Which of the following operates at Layer 1 of the OSI model?

Consider how advancements in computing power affect the security of older encryption algorithms.

4 / 74

The 3DES (Triple DES) encryption algorithm was developed to address the security weaknesses of the original DES algorithm. What is the primary weakness of DES that 3DES overcomes?

This process ensures that the evidence presented in court is an exact replica of what was originally collected.

5 / 74

When collecting a hard drive for a forensic investigation, an analyst creates a bit-for-bit copy and then calculates a hash value for both the original drive and the copy. What is the primary purpose of this hashing procedure?

Consider the three categories of authentication factors: something you know, something you have, and something you are.

6 / 74

Using a password combined with a security question like ‘What was your first pet’s name?’ is NOT considered multi-factor authentication. Why?

This type of malware has a ‘detonation’ condition.

7 / 74

Which of the following describes a ‘logic bomb’?

This RAID configuration is known for its efficient use of disk space while still providing redundancy through distributed parity.

8 / 74

Which RAID level provides striping with parity, requiring a minimum of three disks and allowing for the failure of one disk without data loss?

This type of attack compromises the fundamental isolation provided by virtualization.

9 / 74

What is the primary security risk associated with VM escape in a virtualized environment?

This objective relates to the age of the data that must be recovered for business to resume.

10 / 74

A business determines that it can tolerate a maximum of 4 hours of data loss in the event of a disaster. This metric is known as the:

Focus on the canon that defines the relationship and duty to a ‘principal,’ such as an employer.

11 / 74

Which canon of the (ISC)² Code of Ethics requires a professional to provide diligent and competent service, and specifies that complaints under this canon can only be filed by the professional’s employer or client?

This process involves using the sender’s private key to create a verifiable ‘signature’ for the message.

12 / 74

To ensure the non-repudiation of an email, Alice wants to send a message to Bob in a way that proves she was the sender. What should she do?

This technology allows a remote worker to securely connect to their corporate office network over the public internet.

13 / 74

What is the primary purpose of a VPN (Virtual Private Network)?

The formula for this calculation is ALE = SLE × ARO.

14 / 74

A quantitative risk assessment for a data center calculates the potential loss from a single flood to be $200,000. It is estimated that a flood of this magnitude occurs once every 50 years. What is the Annualized Loss Expectancy (ALE)?

This type of firewall makes decisions based on source/destination IP addresses and port numbers.

15 / 74

At which layer of the OSI model does a standard packet-filtering firewall operate?

This technology allows a single switch to act as if it were multiple, independent switches.

16 / 74

A network administrator wants to logically segment a single physical switch into multiple, separate broadcast domains. What technology should be used?

This function is often used to verify the integrity of a file after it has been downloaded.

17 / 74

Which cryptographic function is designed to be a one-way operation that creates a unique, fixed-length digest of a message?

Think about the identity management lifecycle and the process that occurs when an employee leaves the company.

18 / 74

A security team discovers that a former employee’s account, which should have been disabled upon termination, was used to access sensitive files. This failure is a breakdown in which process?

This is the default security posture for most firewall configurations.

19 / 74

A system administrator implements a firewall rule that states, ‘Anything not explicitly allowed is blocked.’ What is this principle known as?

This type of document serves as a mandatory, detailed implementation of a high-level policy.

20 / 74

A document is created that specifies the exact configuration settings for all Windows servers, including password complexity and firewall rules. What type of security document is this?

This was the first-generation encryption standard for Wi-Fi.

21 / 74

Which wireless security protocol is considered obsolete and should never be used on a modern network due to severe cryptographic vulnerabilities?

This is a specialized hardware chip on the motherboard designed for security functions.

22 / 74

What is the function of a Trusted Platform Module (TPM) in a computer system?

This software layer acts as the foundation upon which virtual machines are built.

23 / 74

A hypervisor is a key component in virtualization. What is its primary role?

Think of a centralized platform that acts as a log repository and analysis engine for an entire enterprise.

24 / 74

A security analyst is reviewing logs from multiple systems to identify a pattern of suspicious activity that is not obvious from any single log source. What type of tool is best suited for this task?

This type of data is transient and will disappear when the computer loses power.

25 / 74

During a forensic investigation, an analyst needs to acquire data from a running system, including open ports, logged-in users, and the contents of RAM. What is this type of data called?

This attack involves an adversary secretly placing themselves in the communication path.

26 / 74

An attacker is positioned between a user and a web server, intercepting and relaying communications. The attacker can read and potentially alter the data without the user or server knowing. What is this attack called?

This strategy involves shifting the financial consequences of a risk to a third party.

27 / 74

A company purchases a cybersecurity insurance policy to cover potential financial losses from a data breach. This is an example of what risk response strategy?

This approach focuses on securing the ‘application’ rather than the entire ‘device’.

28 / 74

A company wants to allow employees to use their personal smartphones for work but wants to keep corporate data separate and secure. Which technology would allow the company to manage only the corporate applications and data on the device, without controlling the entire device?

This model is characterized by its use of security labels and is not managed by end-users.

29 / 74

Which access control model is the most restrictive and is commonly used in environments with classified data, where the operating system enforces access based on security labels?

This type of test is also referred to as crystal-box testing.

30 / 74

A security assessment that is conducted with full knowledge of the target environment, including access to source code and system documentation, is known as what type of test?

This cloud model is often compared to providing a ready-made workshop where developers can build their applications without worrying about the tools or the building itself.

31 / 74

An organization is adopting a cloud service model where they manage their own applications and data, but the cloud provider manages the operating system, middleware, and runtime environment. Which service model is this?

This concept allows a user to use their Google account to log into a third-party service.

32 / 74

In the context of identity management, what is federation?

This access control model is known for its use of policies that evaluate multiple characteristics beyond just user identity.

33 / 74

An access control system uses a subject’s job title, the location from which they are accessing a resource, and the time of day to make an access decision. What type of access control model is this?

This term refers to establishing a secure starting point or foundation for system configurations.

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The practice of creating a standardized, hardened configuration for an operating system or application is known as:

This category of control aims to stop an incident before it can even start.

35 / 74

A security control that reduces the likelihood of a threat by patching a vulnerability is an example of what type of control?

This is also known as a Type I error in biometric systems.

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A biometric system incorrectly rejects a valid, authorized user. What type of error is this?

This authentication protocol is named after a figure from Greek mythology and is famous for its use of a specific type of credential.

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A Single Sign-On (SSO) system like Kerberos uses what mechanism to grant users access to multiple services after an initial login?

This attack targets the memory table that a switch uses to map MAC addresses to physical ports.

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A network switch is flooded with traffic containing different MAC addresses for each frame, exhausting its CAM table. As a result, the switch enters a ‘fail-open’ mode and begins broadcasting all traffic to all ports, allowing an attacker to sniff traffic. What is this attack called?

This deployment model is for a specific group with shared missions or security requirements.

39 / 74

An organization is using a cloud deployment model where the infrastructure is shared by several organizations with common concerns, such as a group of universities or government agencies. What model is this?

The goal in this phase is to stop the bleeding and prevent the problem from getting worse.

40 / 74

According to the NIST incident response lifecycle, what is the immediate priority after an incident has been detected and analyzed?

This form of analysis is performed on code that is ‘at rest’.

41 / 74

A security analyst uses a tool to examine the source code of an application without executing it to find potential vulnerabilities. What type of testing is this?

This technology was created as a solution to the exhaustion of IPv4 addresses.

42 / 74

What is the primary purpose of Network Address Translation (NAT)?

This device is the ‘active’ counterpart to a system that only provides ‘passive’ monitoring.

43 / 74

Which security control is designed to detect and block attacks in real-time by being placed in-line with network traffic?

One concept is about setting things up correctly, the other is about checking that they stay correct.

44 / 74

Due care and due diligence are related legal concepts. Which of the two refers to the ongoing, iterative process of ensuring that security controls remain effective?

This algorithm’s purpose is to solve the problem of key distribution for symmetric encryption.

45 / 74

The Diffie-Hellman algorithm is used for what cryptographic purpose?

This type of DR site is always ‘on’ and ready for immediate use.

46 / 74

Which of the following describes a ‘hot site’ in the context of disaster recovery?

This testing methodology simulates an attack from an external adversary’s perspective.

47 / 74

A penetration tester is given no prior information about the target network’s architecture or systems before beginning an assessment. What type of testing is this?

This is the least disruptive and most discussion-based type of disaster recovery test.

48 / 74

An organization conducts a disaster recovery test where team members gather in a conference room and discuss their roles and responses to a simulated disaster scenario without touching any actual systems. What type of test is this?

For confidentiality, the encryption key must be one that only the intended recipient can reverse.

49 / 74

Alice wants to send a confidential message to Bob using asymmetric cryptography. Which key should she use to encrypt the message?

This strategy is a valid business decision when the cost of a countermeasure outweighs the potential loss.

50 / 74

An organization discovers a vulnerability on a critical server. The cost to implement a patch is significant, and management decides that the likelihood of exploitation is low enough that they will not apply the patch at this time. What risk management strategy is being employed?

This network segment acts as a buffer between the untrusted internet and the trusted internal LAN.

51 / 74

What is the primary purpose of a Demilitarized Zone (DMZ) in a network architecture?

This attack focuses on executing malicious code within the victim’s web browser, not on the server.

52 / 74

A web application vulnerability allows an attacker to inject client-side scripts into web pages viewed by other users. This can be used to bypass access controls, steal session cookies, or spread malware. What is this vulnerability called?

This principle is the ‘I’ in the CIA triad.

53 / 74

In the context of the CIA triad, which principle is primarily concerned with ensuring that data is not altered or destroyed in an unauthorized manner?

Consider the principle designed to prevent a single point of compromise by distributing responsibilities for a sensitive task.

54 / 74

An organization implements a policy where new vendor creation and payment authorization must be performed by two different employees. This is a direct application of which security principle?

This process helps the organization understand what is most important to its survival.

55 / 74

A business impact analysis (BIA) is a critical component of business continuity planning. What is the primary output of a BIA?

This phase focuses on both getting back to normal and making sure the same thing doesn’t happen again.

56 / 74

Which phase of the incident response process involves activities such as applying patches, hardening systems, and updating security policies to prevent the incident from recurring?

This fundamental principle minimizes the potential damage that can be done if an account is compromised.

57 / 74

What is the security principle that dictates a user’s account should only have the absolute minimum permissions necessary to perform their job functions?

This type of control is something you can physically touch and is used to control access to a space.

58 / 74

Which of the following is an example of a physical security control?

Think of the mathematical property where if A=B and B=C, then A=C.

59 / 74

Which of the following describes a transitive trust relationship between domains?

This process aims to reduce the system’s attack surface.

60 / 74

The process of removing unnecessary software, disabling unused services, and configuring security settings to harden a system is known as what?

Consider the difference between a high-level policy and a detailed technical standard.

61 / 74

Which of the following is NOT a common component of a data retention policy?

Consider what action is necessary when a system update introduces critical errors into the production environment.

62 / 74

An organization’s formal change management process requires a detailed backout plan. What is the primary purpose of this plan?

The name of this model is an acronym for the types of threats it helps to identify.

63 / 74

Which of the following describes the STRIDE threat modeling methodology?

This common social engineering attack often uses email as its delivery vector.

64 / 74

A user receives an email that appears to be from their bank, asking them to click a link and verify their account details. The link leads to a fraudulent website that looks identical to the real bank’s site. What is this attack?

This denial-of-service attack targets the initial phase of a TCP connection.

65 / 74

An attacker sends a flood of SYN packets to a server but never completes the three-way handshake by sending the final ACK packet. This consumes server resources by leaving many half-open connections. What type of attack is this?

This step in the AAA process answers the question, ‘What is this user allowed to do?’

66 / 74

In an access control system, which process determines the level of access a validated user has to specific resources?

Think of a self-replicating program that travels through the network on its own.

67 / 74

Which type of malware propagates automatically across a network by exploiting vulnerabilities, without requiring any user interaction?

This control is designed to uncover illicit activities that an employee might be concealing through their daily presence.

68 / 74

A company policy states that employees must take at least one consecutive week of vacation each year, during which their system access is audited. What is the primary security goal of this administrative control?

The best defense against data loss from ransomware is having a solid recovery strategy in place before an attack happens.

69 / 74

A company is hit by ransomware. After containing the affected systems, what is the MOST reliable method for restoring data and ensuring the malware is completely removed?

This type of firewall has a ‘memory’ of ongoing conversations.

70 / 74

A stateful inspection firewall differs from a stateless packet filter because it:

This entity acts as a trusted third party in the PKI ecosystem.

71 / 74

What is the primary purpose of a Certificate Authority (CA) in a Public Key Infrastructure (PKI)?

This protocol operates at Layer 2 and links Layer 3 addresses to Layer 2 addresses.

72 / 74

What is the primary function of the Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) in a TCP/IP network?

This technique is designed to defeat pre-computed hash attacks, like those using rainbow tables.

73 / 74

What is the primary function of salting passwords before they are hashed?

Consider the challenges of managing a device that the company does not own.

74 / 74

Which of the following is a primary security concern with Bring Your Own Device (BYOD) policies?

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