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65+ Essential CompTIA Security+ Practice Questions to Conquer the Exam

The CompTIA Security+ (SY0-701) certification is the premier credential for validating foundational, vendor-neutral cybersecurity skills. The SY0-701 exam covers the latest trends in security operations, threat management, risk analysis, and architecture. To succeed on this challenging test and prove your competence, you need a verifiable, high-quality, free Security+ practice test. This comprehensive set of 67 SY0-701 questions is specifically designed to cover every domain of the updated exam blueprint.

Note: The full interactive practice test is available immediately at the bottom of this post.

67 Essential CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Questions to Conquer the Security+ Exam

Why High-Quality CompTIA Security+ (SY0-701) Practice is Crucial for Certification

The SY0-701 exam is scenario-based, requiring you to think like a security professional under pressure. Relying on outdated or unverified SY0-701 exam dumps often leaves you unprepared for the nuanced questions on topics like zero trust and compensating controls. Our free Security+ practice tests provide the detailed, authoritative explanations you need to master the material and confidently approach the SY0-701 exam.

Mastering Zero Trust and Compensating Controls (SY0-701 Architecture)

Modern architecture is heavily focused on implementing Zero Trust principles and deploying layered defenses.

Zero Trust Enforcement: The Policy Enforcement Point

In the NIST Zero Trust model, when a user is prompted for re-authentication before accessing a file server, the component directly interacting with the user and enforcing the policy decision is the Policy Enforcement Point (PEP). The PEP is the “gatekeeper” responsible for enabling, monitoring, and terminating connections based on the rules dictated by the central Policy Engine. Understanding this flow is essential for the SY0-701.

Compensating Controls for Vulnerabilities

When a critical vulnerability, such as a SQL injection risk on a web server, cannot be patched immediately, a security analyst must deploy an effective compensating control. The most effective interim solution is implementing a Web Application Firewall (WAF). A WAF is designed to inspect HTTP traffic and can proactively identify and block malicious SQL queries, providing an immediate, direct mitigation (a virtual patch) until the primary vulnerability can be remediated. This concept is highly tested on the SY0-701.

https://www.fortinet.com/resources/cyberglossary/how-to-implement-zero-trust

Security Operations and Risk Management (NIST & ALE)

The SY0-701 requires deep knowledge of incident handling and quantitative risk assessment.

The Final Phase of Incident Response

According to the NIST incident response life cycle, after the phases of Preparation, Detection & Analysis, and Containment, Eradication, & Recovery, the immediate next phase is Post-Incident Activity. This phase is critical for long-term improvement, encompassing activities like creating a lessons-learned report, reviewing policies, and applying changes to prevent recurrence, a key operational domain for the SY0-701.

Calculating Risk Expectancy

The SY0-701 often requires understanding risk calculation formulas. To determine the Annualized Loss Expectancy (ALE) for a specific risk, you must know the Single Loss Expectancy (SLE) (the cost of one occurrence) and the Annualized Rate of Occurrence (ARO). The ARO represents how many times the threat is expected to occur in one year.

https://nvlpubs.nist.gov/nistpubs/specialpublications/nist.sp.800-61r2.pdf

Advanced Identity, Access, and Data Sanitization

Mastering authentication standards and data lifecycle management is necessary to pass the SY0-701.

Implementing Enterprise Wireless Security

To upgrade a wireless network from WPA2-Personal to an enterprise-grade solution that provides individual user authentication against a central directory, the company must implement 802.1X. This IEEE standard enables Port-based Network Access Control and is typically implemented using WPA2/3-Enterprise, which relies on a centralized RADIUS server for strong, user-specific authentication. This is a critical distinction for the SY0-701.

Differentiating Data Sanitization Methods

When decommissioning magnetic media (like traditional Hard Disk Drives or backup tapes), the most effective and common sanitization method is using a degausser. A degausser generates a powerful magnetic field to erase data completely. However, the SY0-701 requires you to know that this method is ineffective for flash-based media (SSDs, USB drives) which require physical destruction or a cryptographic erase.

Conclusion: Achieve Your Security+ Certification

The CompTIA Security+ (SY0-701) certification is your launchpad into a cybersecurity career. Success depends on moving past surface-level knowledge and achieving practical mastery across all security domains. This free Security+ practice test provides 67 expert questions and authoritative explanations to ensure you are fully prepared. Don’t risk your career goals on unverified SY0-701 exam dumps. Please do not forget to checkout other free CompTIA on CertyBuddy.com: https://certybuddy.com/practice-tests/?vendor=comptia

Take the professional step now. Master these critical SY0-701 questions and secure your certification today!

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67 Essential SY0-701 Questions to Conquer the Security+ Exam

Consider the cloud model that is most analogous to having a virtual server in a data center.

1 / 67

Which of the following cloud service models provides the customer with the most control over the operating system and installed applications?

The key difference is in the ‘P’ for ‘Prevention’, which implies an active response.

2 / 67

Which of the following describes the difference between an intrusion detection system (IDS) and an intrusion prevention system (IPS)?

Think about a specialized security device designed to protect web applications from common attacks at the application layer.

3 / 67

A security analyst is reviewing a vulnerability scan report and notes that an internal web server is susceptible to a SQL injection attack. The development team states they cannot patch the application immediately. Which of the following would be the most effective compensating control to implement in the interim?

This technique involves substituting sensitive data with a non-sensitive placeholder.

4 / 67

A company wants to ensure that data stored in its cloud database can be used in a web application for purposes like validating credit card numbers, but the actual sensitive data is replaced with a non-sensitive equivalent. Which data obfuscation technique is being described?

This attack relies on users misreading a domain name due to a small, intentional error in the spelling.

5 / 67

An attacker sends an email to an employee that appears to be from a known vendor. The email address is slightly altered (e.g., ‘mike_smith@examp1e.com’ instead of ‘mike_smith@example.com’). What specific type of attack is this?

Consider whether this control is implemented through technology, physical barriers, high-level policy, or day-to-day human procedures.

6 / 67

Which type of security control is represented by conducting security awareness training for employees?

This deception technology is a decoy in the form of a file.

7 / 67

An organization is setting up a honeypot to deceive and gather intelligence on attackers. The honeypot is designed to look like a vulnerable database server and contains fake data files. What is the term for these fake data files designed to attract attackers?

The best defense separates the user-supplied data from the structure of the database command.

8 / 67

A developer is writing code for a web application and wants to prevent SQL injection vulnerabilities. Which of the following is the most effective secure coding practice to achieve this?

This protocol builds a logical tree out of the physical network topology.

9 / 67

A network administrator is configuring a new switch and wants to prevent network loops while still allowing for redundant paths. Which protocol should be enabled?

This is the most recent extension of a major Wi-Fi standard designed to reduce congestion.

10 / 67

A new version of the CompTIA A+ exam now includes the 6GHz frequency band. Which wireless technology utilizes this band?

The name of this attack describes the action of using captured data again.

11 / 67

An attacker uses an on-path (man-in-the-middle) attack to intercept a user’s credentials. The attacker then uses those credentials to log into a system at a later time. What type of attack has the attacker conducted after the initial interception?

Consider which sanitization method relies on magnetism.

12 / 67

A security analyst needs to sanitize a solid-state drive (SSD) containing sensitive data before it is repurposed. Which of the following methods would be INEFFECTIVE for ensuring all data is non-recoverable?

The name of this IPSec component emphasizes ‘authentication’ over ‘payload security’.

13 / 67

Which IPSec protocol provides integrity and authentication for the entire IP packet, including the header and payload, but does not provide confidentiality?

This attack method relies on a pre-built data structure that maps hashes back to their original plaintext.

14 / 67

An attacker is attempting to crack a password hash file they have stolen. Instead of trying every possible character combination, they use a large, precomputed file of hashes for common passwords. What is this technique called?

This testing methodology is named for the tester’s inability to see inside the target system.

15 / 67

A penetration tester wants to test an application for vulnerabilities by providing it with a wide range of malformed and unexpected inputs. The tester does not have access to the application’s source code. What type of testing is this?

This tool is named after a type of dog known for its exceptional tracking ability.

16 / 67

A penetration tester uses a tool to analyze an organization’s Active Directory environment to find complex and often unintended attack paths that would be missed by traditional vulnerability scanners. The tool visualizes the relationships between AD objects. Which tool is being described?

This term describes using a compromised machine as a stepping stone to move deeper into a network.

17 / 67

An attacker compromises a web server and then uses that server to launch attacks against other systems within the same internal network. What is this technique called?

The calculation for annualized loss requires knowing not just how much is lost in a single event, but also how often that event is likely to happen.

18 / 67

A company wants to calculate the Annualized Loss Expectancy (ALE) for a specific risk. They have determined that the Single Loss Expectancy (SLE) is $25,000. What other value is essential to calculate the ALE?

This concept is about providing undeniable proof of an action.

19 / 67

Which cryptographic concept ensures that a sender cannot deny having sent a message?

The distinction between these disaster recovery sites is primarily about the readiness of the systems and data for immediate use.

20 / 67

Which of the following describes a key difference between a hot site and a warm site for disaster recovery?

Consider what a PKI system needs to do when a private key is compromised.

21 / 67

In public key infrastructure (PKI), what is the purpose of a Certificate Revocation List (CRL)?

The name of this tool type emphasizes the ‘unification’ of managing different kinds of devices.

22 / 67

An organization wants to use a single tool to manage security policies and configurations for mobile devices, laptops, and desktops, regardless of the operating system. Which type of tool best fits this requirement?

This attack’s name is an analogy related to the size and importance of the target.

23 / 67

An email is received that appears to be from the company’s CEO, requesting an urgent wire transfer to a new vendor. This is a targeted attack specifically aimed at a high-level executive or employee with financial authority. What is this type of attack called?

Think about a service that provides constantly updated data about adversaries and their infrastructure.

24 / 67

A security team is using a SIEM to correlate events from multiple sources. They want to enrich the log data with information about known malicious IP addresses and domains. What should they integrate with their SIEM?

Think about the part of a plan that deals with what to do when things go wrong.

25 / 67

A security auditor is reviewing an organization’s change management process. They notice that a major patch was installed on a critical server, which caused a service outage. The team was unable to quickly revert the change. What critical component was likely missing from their change management plan?

Consider the life cycle and support model for many low-cost, mass-produced connected devices.

26 / 67

Which of the following is a security concern specifically related to the Internet of Things (IoT) devices that is less common with traditional servers and workstations?

This model’s name visually represents its iterative and risk-driven nature.

27 / 67

An organization is using a software development model that emphasizes risk assessment at each stage and repeats the identification, design, build, and evaluation process in successive cycles. Which SDLC model is being used?

This approach is based on a ‘default deny’ principle for application execution.

28 / 67

An organization wants to create an inventory of all applications running on its endpoints and restrict execution to only an approved list of software. What is this security practice called?

Think of a technology that packages an application and its environment but doesn’t include a full guest operating system.

29 / 67

Which of the following describes a ‘container’ in the context of virtualization and application deployment?

This formal IT process is designed to control and coordinate modifications to infrastructure.

30 / 67

An organization’s security policy requires a process for reviewing and approving all changes to production systems before implementation. This includes an impact analysis and a backout plan. What is this process called?

This type of hypervisor is commonly used in enterprise data centers for its performance and stability.

31 / 67

Which type of hypervisor runs directly on the host computer’s hardware without a host operating system?

This term refers to a standard starting point for a system’s configuration.

32 / 67

A company policy states that all servers must be hardened according to the standards published by the Center for Internet Security (CIS). What type of document is this policy referencing?

Look for an algorithm that was intentionally designed to be slow for password protection.

33 / 67

An attacker wants to perform an offline brute-force attack against a stolen password file. Which hashing algorithm would be the MOST difficult and time-consuming for the attacker to crack?

This physical security control is like an airlock for people.

34 / 67

A company is setting up a new data center. To protect against tailgating, they want to install a physical control that allows only one person to pass through at a time after successful authentication. Which of the following would be most effective?

This concept involves creating a trust relationship between your organization’s identity system and external services.

35 / 67

A security team wants to implement a solution that allows employees to use their corporate credentials to log in to various third-party SaaS applications, such as Salesforce and Workday. What technology enables this capability?

Consider the security checks that are bypassed when not using an official source for applications.

36 / 67

A user sideloads an application onto their mobile device from an untrusted third-party website, bypassing the official app store. What is the primary security risk associated with this action?

Think about the mathematical method used to verify that two sets of data are identical.

37 / 67

A security team is performing a post-incident forensic investigation. They create a bit-for-bit copy of a suspect’s hard drive. To ensure the integrity of the copied data and maintain the chain of custody, what should they do immediately after creating the copy?

Consider the term for an attack that occurs simply by visiting a compromised web page.

38 / 67

A phishing email convinces a user to visit a malicious website. The website exploits a vulnerability in the user’s web browser to install malware without any further user interaction. This is an example of what type of attack?

This core function of the framework is focused on timely discovery of security incidents.

39 / 67

According to the NIST Cybersecurity Framework, which function involves developing and implementing the appropriate activities to identify the occurrence of a cybersecurity event?

This term combines ‘robot’ and ‘network’ to describe the army of compromised machines.

40 / 67

In a distributed denial-of-service (DDoS) attack, what is the role of a ‘botnet’?

This attack’s name suggests a malicious duplicate of a legitimate entity.

41 / 67

What type of social engineering attack involves an attacker setting up a rogue Wi-Fi access point with a legitimate-sounding name (e.g., ‘Free_Airport_WiFi’) to intercept user traffic?

Consider what crucial activity must be performed after an incident is fully resolved to prevent future occurrences.

42 / 67

An incident response team has contained a malware outbreak. According to the NIST incident response life cycle, what is the immediate next phase after ‘Containment, Eradication, & Recovery’?

This is Microsoft’s modern command-line shell and scripting language.

43 / 67

A script with a ‘.ps1’ file extension is found on a Windows server. What scripting language is this file written in?

This technique prevents two users with the password ‘password123’ from having the same stored hash value.

44 / 67

What is the primary function of a ‘salt’ in the context of password hashing?

The ‘O’ and ‘S’ in this acronym stand for ‘Open Source’.

45 / 67

Which of the following describes ‘OSINT’ in the context of information security?

Consider the most current and powerful scripting engine built into modern versions of Microsoft Windows.

46 / 67

A system administrator needs to create a script to automate the remapping of network drives for users on Windows machines. Which script file type would be most appropriate for this task using a modern scripting language?

This security feature involves switches keeping an eye on DHCP conversations.

47 / 67

Which of the following technologies is used to prevent rogue DHCP servers from operating on a network by validating DHCP messages?

Consider a type of malware that avoids traditional detection methods by not having a presence on the storage media.

48 / 67

A new malware variant is discovered that resides only in the computer’s RAM and is never written to the hard disk. What type of malware is this?

This secure file transfer protocol is built upon the protocol commonly used for secure remote shell access.

49 / 67

An administrator needs to securely transfer files to a remote Linux server using a command-line interface. Which protocol provides an encrypted channel for both the file transfer and session management?

The name of this platform is an acronym describing its three main functions: coordination, automation, and reaction.

50 / 67

A security operations center (SOC) uses a platform that automates incident response tasks by integrating various security tools and defining workflows in playbooks. What is this platform called?

The vulnerability lies in the list of encryption algorithms the server offers to clients during the TLS handshake.

51 / 67

A security analyst is hardening a web server. They discover that the server’s SSL/TLS configuration supports the insecure RC4 cipher. What is the most appropriate remediation action?

This technology uses digital signatures to protect against data modification attacks.

52 / 67

What is the primary purpose of DNSSEC?

The name of this technology explicitly states its purpose: to stop data from being lost or leaked.

53 / 67

A company is concerned about employees unintentionally leaking sensitive data through email or by uploading files to cloud storage. Which technology is specifically designed to identify and prevent such actions based on content and context?

Think about a RAID configuration that can tolerate two simultaneous drive failures.

54 / 67

In the context of the CompTIA A+ update, which RAID level was added that provides block-level striping with double distributed parity, offering better fault tolerance than RAID 5?

Consider which part of the zero-trust model acts as the gatekeeper for a resource, carrying out the decisions made by the central logic.

55 / 67

An organization is implementing a zero-trust architecture. When a user attempts to access a file server, they are prompted for re-authentication. Which component of the NIST Zero Trust model is directly interacting with the user to enforce this policy?

Think about the standard used for enterprise-level authentication on both wired and wireless networks that involves a central authentication server.

56 / 67

A security audit reveals that a company’s wireless network is using WPA2-Personal. To improve security and enable individual user authentication against a central directory, what should the company implement?

This control involves a physical separation, not just a logical one.

57 / 67

What is the primary goal of an ‘air gap’ as a security control?

Consider the term that describes the gradual accumulation of access rights beyond what is needed.

58 / 67

During an audit, it is found that a system administrator who recently changed roles from database administrator to network administrator still has administrative access to the company’s critical databases. This is an example of what security issue?

The term for this threat actor emphasizes their ability to remain in a network undetected for long periods.

59 / 67

A threat actor compromises a single user’s account and then uses tools to move laterally through the network, eventually gaining administrative control over the domain controller. What type of threat actor is most likely to perform such a sophisticated, multi-stage attack with a specific objective?

The name of this technique evokes the idea of sending unclear or distorted inputs to a program.

60 / 67

A security analyst uses a tool to send a large volume of unexpected and random data to an application’s input fields to see if it crashes or behaves unexpectedly. What is this testing technique called?

This phase is all about learning as much as possible about the target before attempting to break in.

61 / 67

In which phase of the penetration testing process would a tester use tools like Nmap and Recon-ng to actively probe and gather information about the target network?

Consider a data source that provides metadata about network traffic flows rather than the full content of the packets.

62 / 67

An analyst detects a compromised host beaconing to a command-and-control (C2) server. The traffic is encrypted using TLS, preventing inspection. Which of the following data sources would be most useful for identifying other potentially compromised hosts on the network exhibiting similar behavior?

Think about a control that identifies and reports on an unwanted event rather than stopping it.

63 / 67

Which of the following is an example of a detective security control?

Think about the shared responsibility model and which security tasks are shifted to the cloud provider in a serverless environment.

64 / 67

What is the primary security advantage of using a serverless (FaaS) architecture compared to a traditional IaaS model?

This attack exploits the first step of the TCP three-way handshake.

65 / 67

A security analyst is examining a network capture and sees a large number of TCP packets with the SYN flag set being sent to a single server from many different source IP addresses, but the three-way handshake is never completed. What type of attack is most likely occurring?

This attack leverages how switches process frames on a specific type of untagged VLAN within a trunk link.

66 / 67

During a penetration test, an attacker successfully uses a double-tagging attack. Which network vulnerability is being exploited?

The name of this log file directly relates to ‘authentication’.

67 / 67

During a forensic investigation of a Linux system, an analyst wants to review logs related to user authentication successes and failures. Which log file would be the primary source for this information on a Debian-based system?

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